I have a friend who has had a couple recurrences and the Dr's have retested her hoping each time she was her2+ so they could give her herceptin. The last biopsy it said she was her2 1. What does this mean. Does it mean that her2 is slightly overexpressed? If you were her2- would it be 0? She failed on tamoxifan and supressing the ovaries now they are suppressing the ovaries still but this time she on the aromatose inhibitor. She also carries a rare gene(p53,i think, cannot remember the medical name...some kind of syndrome) Her daughter passed away when she was young from a brain tumor so she more than likely had the gene too.(her children have a 50%chance of having it) She just wants to know all her options and because I wasn't sure what her2 1 meant I thought I'd ask here because you are all so knowledgable.
Thanks,
Steph
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