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Interpretation
What does this actually mean:
"Patients with negative lymph nodes, whose estimated risk of recurrence after optimal chemotherapy and endocrine therapy comfortably exceeds the risk of the cardiac toxic effects of trastuzumab, should also be offered the antibody. Since most HER2-positive tumors have other adverse prognostic factors, this risk–benefit scenario is likely to apply to many patients with node-negative breast cancer. "
If patient A has a higher estimated risk of recurrence after optimal chemotherapy and endocrine therapy, but patient B is within a year out from therapy and patient A is 3 years out, why is it that patient B would automatically be offered the antibody but patient A would not?
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Threaded Mode