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Still puzzled
Thanks for trying to explain this. Part of it still doesn't make sense to me. I can understand that they wanted to only give Herceptin to those with higher recurrence rates so that the outcome would sell better and more people who were at the most risk would be helped. But 1 cm is still the threshold for chemotherapy under the newest criteria, so on what basis are they now adding Herceptin to chemotherapy for those newly diagnosed who are between 1 and 2 cm? What did the trial prove that showed a difference in outcome for those between 1 and 2 cm compared to just chemotherapy? Since it is more cardiotoxic to have Adriamycin and Herceptin than just Herceptin, are they doing any better than with just chemotherapy? How are they justifying it if they couldn't justify it for the 1 to 2 cm group previously? And if they are getting chemo and Herceptin, how do they know whether those patients would do just as good or better with just Herceptin?
Confused,
A.A.
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