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am I reading this right?
"In particular, patients with tumors in which a high proliferative activity was associated with HER-2 overexpression showed a risk of relapse approximately two times higher than that observed for patients with rapidly proliferating but weak HER-2-expressing tumors, or for those with slowly proliferating tumors regardless of HER-2 expression."
"The clinical outcome was substantially worse for the subset of patients with tumors in which a high proliferative activity was coupled with high HER-2 expression, compared with that of patients with weak expressing HER-2 or highly HER-2 expressing but slowly proliferating tumors (P = .002)."
Is this saying that if you have a low mitotic index (say 1) and high her2 score (say 6.5) that her2 is not a strong indicator and that mitotic activity is a better indicator of disease free survival?
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