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dberg
06-19-2005, 08:33 AM
Hi everyone,
I'm 46, finished chemo/rads recently, still no period. I started tamoxifen and "late" herceptin a couple of weeks ago. My onc is leaving the ovarian suppression (Zolodex) up to me. If I go this route he says I will still be on tamoxifen.

I understand that AIs are used postmenopausal women only. But if my ovaries are suppressed, or even removed, won't that change my status?

Am I missing something here? What are you all doing?

*_sally_*
06-19-2005, 04:09 PM
I was taking Lupron, but decided to have my ovaries out instead. I just had it done a couple of weeks ago. My Dr. said that the postmenopausal drugs are more effective. I am on Herceptin and Femara. I am 37 years old Her2+++ er/pr+++ I had 8/16 nodes positive and a spot on my liver. Sally

cezra
06-19-2005, 10:52 PM
As I understand it, your ovarian function must be suppressed in order to take aromitaise inhibitors such as arimidex or femara. Suppression can occur through drug suppression as you are doing or surgically removing the ovaries. The aromitaise inhibitors work better for Her2neu+ patients. I was told by 2 oncs I could get lupron shots for 2 years and then if my menses returned I would need to have my ovaries removed. I was 40 at the time and so decided to just have my ovaries removed. Easy surgery and recovery. Mine was done laproscopic 2 years ago.