First Post/Strange Question

[Gary]

Hello all...

First post ever. What a great resource! I admire each of you for your support, courage and insight. Thanks!

My wife was diagnosed in January, 2004 with Stage IIIa breast cancer. Her tumor was 7 cm. She had a mastectomy with tram flap reconstruction. She was her2+ and er+. Her pr number was 30%...not sure whether this means pr+ or pr-(maybe someone could help me with this one). She participated in the Herceptin trials for 16 weeks but had to withdraw because her injection fraction dropped to 40% (it has bounced back to 60%). She was taking Arimidex. Her last ct/bone scans were in April, 2007 and she remains cancer free.

Here's my "strange question". Last week, my wife's period returned after 3 1/2 years. Her oncologist was quite surprised since they have monitored her menopausal status every six months through blood tests. She had another blood test last week after her period...sure enough her menopausal status had changed from post to pre.

Given this turn of events, her oncologist provided two options. First, my wife could get "the shot" that shuts down her estrogen production and remain on Arimidex. Or, she could simply switch to Tamoxifen. Her oncologist suggested that she switch to Tamoxifen. She said that, while Arimidex has proven superior to Tamoxiven for post menopausal women, it has not been proven superior for women who are artifically placed in a post-menopausal phase.

I am not second-guessing her oncologist...she is absolutely wonderful! She has been on the leading edge of technology throughout my wife's treatment. Just wondering if anyone has had a similiar experience?

Thanks,

Gary